Hello everyone! Please help a beleaguered lover of the English language!. I have been doing battle over this sentence: Quite apart from his incorrect use of "affluent", I aver that he misused the conditional tense in his first clause. My argument went thusly: The argument I got back was: I maintain that the use of the conditional tense here is grammatically incorrect, and that therefore the sentence itself is grammatically incorrect. My opponent maintains that the sentence IS grammatically correct. Which of us is correct, and why? TIA!