#1. The second is some kind of slang or colloquialism, so I would say it's not totally incorrect, but not really correct either.
being in common use does not = 'correct'... so #1 is grammatically correct and #2 is incorrect grammar, though often used in speaking...
I'm not completely certain, but in #2, would "me" not be considered an indirect object, and therefore make the sentence perfectly acceptable?
i see it as an elided version of 'answer this for me'... in which case the unstated object would be 'question'...
The verb 'answer' does not take 'me' as a direct object unless it is in the imperative - 'Answer me!' In the above sentence, the direct object is 'this', and the 'me' seems like a remnent of a prepositional phrase, like 'for me'. But it cannot be a direct object in this sentence because that function is already fulfilled by 'this' ;-)